From the Discourses of the First Decade of Titus Livius, Machiavelli states:
‘But since the restoration of a State to new political
life presupposes a good man, and to become prince of a city by
violence presupposes a bad man, it can, consequently, very seldom
happen that, although the end be good, a good man will be found
ready to become a prince by evil ways, or that a bad man having
become a prince will be disposed to act virtuously, or think of turning
to good account his ill-acquired authority.’
My interpretation of this passage casts Machiavelli as a proto libertarian.
We are faced with a dilemma; it takes wicked or otherwise reprehensible means to obtain power for the purpose, at least ostensibly, of doing good once such power is obtained, how likely is this? Or, that the means necessary to obtain power are such that a good man would ever employ them and thus never obtain power to do good. Hence, are political leaders ever acting in the 'public interest''? To what extent does this same problem persist today?
In a dictatorship, or other form of authoritarian form of government, it takes a sociopath, if not a psychopath, to seek power. Needless to say, such a personality once in power is not predisposed to do good. The authoritarian system of government also precludes the good person from seeking or obtaining power. However, in a less authoritarian form of government, e.g., a democracy or a republic, the level of rapacious action necessary to gain power is mitigated. What passes for reprehensible behavior in a dictatorship (murder, genocide, repression) is mitigated in a democracy or republic to garden variety bribery, corruption, and double dealing, all of which are less pernicious and inimical to the cause of civil order although this is somewhat of a Hobbesian choice. I quote Lord Acton "Great men are always bad men."
Therefore, implicit in Machiavelli's dilemma is the best reason for limited government. If governmental power can only be obtained with rapacious means to some degree or another with results inimical to civil order, then in a rational society, with any degree of rectitude of judgment, the power of the government would be limited as far as possible thereby mitigating the pernicious tendencies of government power. I believe that this dianoetic conclusion follows apodictically. Again, I quote Lord Acton "Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely"
I believe that Machiavelli, being a man of Middle Ages, or at least a man with one foot in the Middle Ages could not come to this conclusion though it was implicit in his own dilemma. We had to wait for Locke and Burke to point out that the expansion of society and the state are not the same. Society expands to escape the pressure of the state. This is the argument for a liberal (not as in the modern use of the word liberal) civil order.
You see, Machiavelli was a proto libertarian.
However, after all this, we are right back to the Machiavellian dilemma for it appears impossible to maintain a limited government, even one that is initially founded as such and so constituted for the same reasons that Machiavelli adduced, the nature of the people who seek power in the first place.
Please feel free to expatiate on these idea, does Machiavelli give us the best argument for limited government and is limited government even possible?
Thanks for reading and best regards,
Joe